Talk:Leibniz formula for π

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Leibniz formula for pi

The justification of the term-by-term integration here is not actually trivial. Charles Matthews 12:34, 9 Mar 2005 (UTC)

Alternative summations

can be rewritten as:

ie: as the sum of two overlapping infinite summations, where one is all positive and the other is all negative.

This necessarily converges far worse than the original formulation, as the two sums step at different rates. It works only because the infinities are both of natural numbers and thus equal infinities, so it doesn't matter that the step rate is different. But continuing with it anyway, we get:

Reduce to a single summation:

Get the denominators equal:

Combine the two fractions:

Simplify:

Since Pi is equal to four times this, we get that Pi then equals:

As best as I can tell, this summation is completely useless, but seems easier to scan with the eye than a lot I've seen. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.164.145.226 (talk) 04:07, 17 February 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Since the series is only conditionally and not absolutely convergent, this whole remark is rubbish from the start. Reordering a conditonally convergent series allows to converge to any real number or to diverge.--LutzL (talk) 19:00, 12 May 2011 (UTC)[reply]
using same start point and step


simplifies to
2600:1003:B84B:D477:14A6:A3D9:895A:5D12 (talk) 18:23, 12 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]



Better proof

I was trying to find π using a power series in one way or another in order to get the Leibniz formula, and I found this to be a better method of showing how:

We know that

Take the first derivative of arctan(x) and put it in a geometric series:

Integrate that:

So, we have a power series for arctan(x):

Plug in 1 for x and get π/4:

For aesthetics (article uses n=0 to ∞):

Q.E.D.

-Matt 20:11, 18 March 2006 (UTC)[reply]


"However, if the series is truncated at the right time, the decimal expansion of the approximation will agree with that of π for many more digits, except for isolated digits or digit groups."

I feel there should be more elaboration on this.

Hint: if N is a power of ten, each term in the right sum will be a finite decimal fraction. I agree that there is room for elaboration in the article. Feel free to edit it. Fredrik Johansson 11:29, 13 September 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Title?

Is there a reason that this article is not at

Leibniz series? Srnec (talk) 05:53, 16 November 2008 (UTC)[reply
]

Whats with the *systematic* attempt to rename every mathematical formula or series as the "Madhava-xxx" formula or series? There's only one book reference to this

Leibniz Series
should be renamed. The damage from this oversight of review is becoming extensive as numerous articles on the web are referring to this one in incorrectly naming it.

Seriously, if the claims made by the author were even half valid then Indian mathematics would have allowed us to have worm-hole technology by now. Xp fun (talk)

Can anyone comment on the validity of these claims? I can try to suggest a less controversial rewrite of the article, also is there a better forum than this area for such broad changes? Xp fun (talk) 21:44, 14 August 2009 (UTC)[reply]
"You can wake up a person who is sleeping, but never a person who pretends to do so!"
1. If a book, or a source is not "available in Google Books or Scholar" does it mean it does not exist?!
2. If you clicked through the (presently ALSO ill-named) "Gregory Series" you will see 4 references to books published in the 1500s in India. Gregory's floruit was 1668.
3. It is a fact that Madhava's floruit is 2 FURTHER centuries older than that.
4. STOP the blatant WHITEWASHING AND RACISM! Stop the BLATANT EUROCENTRISM.
Thanks! Peace Out!! Shivasundar (talk) 23:13, 14 April 2022 (UTC)[reply]

I found this paragraph on Google books, from Mathematics in India by Kim Plofker.

However, I should point out that "Madhava–Leibniz series" has only two hits on Google books and one hit on Google scholar, all of which are references specifically about Indian mathematics. I see no evidence that the term "Madhava–Leibniz series" is used by mathematicians, and Wikipedia is not an appropriate forum for advocating a more correct name for a mathematical concept. Since the material is of historical interest, I have moved it from the lead to a new section on history. Jim (talk) 16:44, 23 October 2009 (UTC)[reply]

References

  1. ^ "Neither Newton nor Leibniz - The Pre-History of Calculus and Celestial Mechanics in Medieval Kerala". MAT 314. Canisius College. Retrieved 2006-07-09.

Gregory-Leibniz vs. Leibniz-Gregory

It seems that "Gregory-Leibniz" is the more common ordering. In particular, "Gregory-Leibniz series" gets

  • 27,700 Google hits,
  • 41 hits on Google books, and
  • 23 hits on Google scholar,

while "Leibniz-Gregory series" only gets

  • 9,560 Google hits,
  • 8 hits on Google books, and
  • 4 hits on Google scholar.

Jim (talk) 16:28, 23 October 2009 (UTC)[reply]

POV History?

"To give the rightful place to this great mathematician, the series should be named 'mAdhava srENi' or Madhava Series. But now Madhava's work is sometimes known as the Madhava–Leibniz series."

Great? Rightful place? Should? "But now"? I believe it would be better suited for this articule to discuss other names the series could be known by in the opening paragraph (with redirections as necessary). History should include all of the history of the series rather than just the history of one "great" mathematician over others.

-Ben0mega (talk) 00:08, 19 May 2010 (UTC)[reply]

an edit

I edited the article to make it shorter and less controversial. I removed the part of the proof that was not a proof. I removed wishful thinking about honoring Madhava. I changed the heading 'history' to 'names'. Bo Jacoby (talk) 06:22, 1 June 2010 (UTC).[reply]

The reference: George E. Andrews, Richard Askey, Ranjan Roy (1999), Special Functions, Cambridge University Press, p. 58,

ISBN 0521789885 says (in an exercise on p. 59 actually) that the formula was known to Madhava, but not that it is called the Madhava-Leibnitz formula. I will correct the article. Bo Jacoby (talk) 13:25, 6 June 2010 (UTC).[reply
]

Requested move part 1

The following discussion is an archived discussion of a
requested move
. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on the talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

The result of the move request was: no consensus for move, partially in light of Talk:Pi#Requested_move Skomorokh 14:43, 12 May 2011 (UTC)[reply]


This is a butter cookie, not a π

talk) 08:12, 4 May 2011 (UTC)[reply
]

The above discussion is preserved as an archive of a
requested move
. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on this talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

Requested move part 2

The following discussion is an archived discussion of a
requested move
. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on the talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

The result of the move request was: Move. Edokter (talk) — 12:23, 8 June 2011 (UTC)[reply]



Leibniz formula for pi → Leibniz formula for π – Reopening the requested move following discussion at Wikipedia talk:WikiProject Mathematics#FYI: Leibniz_formula for pi. The early non admin closure was not per policy as there was not an overriding consensus. Salix (talk): 06:45, 13 May 2011 (UTC)[reply
]

  • By that argument, should we move
    talk) 07:46, 13 May 2011 (UTC)[reply
    ]
We have things like the "DISPLAYTITLE" template, how difficult would it be to have a "READTITLE" template (ie a template that could more generally be used to write out in words what is written to help out screen readers)? RobHar (talk) 13:57, 16 May 2011 (UTC)[reply]
I'm afraid it's too much trouble. DISPLAYTITLE is also not as straightforward as it should be, due to vandalism. Similarly, a PRONOUNCETITLE template which can explain that
Raymond Luxury Yacht is pronounced "Throatwobbler Mangrove" could also be used for various kinds of mischief that would only be noticed by screenreader users. Hans Adler 10:38, 26 May 2011 (UTC)[reply
]
The above discussion is preserved as an archive of a
requested move
. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on this talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

Article title (again)

Gregory's Series and changed the lead paragraph to remove the reference to Leibniz and call it Gregory's formula. "Gregory's series" (note lowercase second word per Wikipedia style conventions) is certainly one of the names of this formula, but "Gregory's formula" or the "Gregory formula" appears to more commonly refer to something else involving numerical integration. In any case I reverted the change feeling that it was the sort of thing we should discuss here first. I have no strong feelings myself on which name we give the article as long as it is one of the common names for this series and is properly capitalized. Any opinions on this besides mine and OliverBel's? There are some discussions immediately above regarding the article title but they are on a different aspect of it (whether to spell out π or use the symbol for it). —David Eppstein (talk) 22:29, 17 May 2014 (UTC)[reply
]

Sloppy proof

The proof, as written, is unacceptably sloppy - large leaps are made without justification, and a new variable (n) is introduced without explanation partway through (leaving the reader to guess as to what it actually is - an arbitrary integer? it is not clear).

Could someone please clean this up? 108.2.128.112 (talk) 03:31, 14 July 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Series is a rational number

Off-topic discussion
The following discussion has been closed. Please do not modify it.

The series is a sum of rational numbers, which can only result in a rational number. But π is proven to be an irrational number. It's apparent that the series therefore cannot EQUAL π (or π/4) since a rational number cannot equal an irrational number. The series must approach π but cannot equal π

2600:1003:B853:C0F:9512:7625:7F74:ED31 (talk) 02:49, 6 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]

What makes you think that the sum of an infinite series of rational numbers must be rational? —David Eppstein (talk) 02:56, 6 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]

The series can be expressed as this infinite loop, showing it's always the ratio of two integers:
N=1
S=4
Numerator=4
Denominator=1

Do

print "π≈";Numerator;"/"; Denominator
S=-S
N=N+2
Numerator=N*Numerator+S*Denominator
Denominator=Denominator*N

Loop
2600:1003:B853:C0F:9512:7625:7F74:ED31 (talk) 03:21, 6 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]

It is rational at each finite step, but what makes you think that the result of an infinite process will keep the same properties as its finite steps? In any case this is far off-topic here, because this discussion board is only for discussing improvements to the article based on published reliable sources, not about clearing up your misunderstanding of basic mathematical definitions. —David Eppstein (talk) 04:59, 6 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]

The process can be repeated ad infinitum and the result can never be anything but a ratio of two integers. That much seems clear. This seems to be fundamentally different than something like (n/∞)=0 due to the difference between the rational series and it's irrational limit- which seems to perhaps impose another condition on determining equality.

What I question on the wiki page is the use of the "=" sign between the series and the "π" symbol. 2600:1003:B853:C0F:9512:7625:7F74:ED31 (talk) 05:52, 6 March 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Series is a limit of partial sums, IT IS NOT A SUM. Just by definition. There is no such concept as infinite sum, at least until summation rules are introduced, like Cesaro summation. 2A00:1FA0:48BD:B662:FD9A:5A04:FE1B:E20D (talk) 12:04, 4 April 2021 (UTC)[reply]