Talk:Districts of Mandatory Palestine

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Several changes to administrative divisions are not documented here due to insufficient detail: Palestine Post Dec 25, 1940, p5, and Jan 28, 1942, p2. It seems like there were at least 10 adjustments altogether during the Mandate period. Zero^talk 03:06, 26 May 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Please help to write the names "district" and "sub-district" in Hebrew and Arabic. We can give both singular and plural in the original scripts and transliterated. To see the names actually used, look at the early pages of this PDF file.

Zero^talk 13:15, 12 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

According to the

Dictionary of Modern Written Arabic, the plural of minṭaqah is manaṭiq مناطق (though I can't testify that that was the form used in the Mandate period). Anyway, if minṭaqah corresponds to Hebrew maħoz, then why does it say in the article that qaḍaʔ corresponds to maħoz? AnonMoos (talk) 16:30, 16 February 2014 (UTC)[reply

]

To the first part: I don't have a source to test it, but let's go with that until proven wrong. To the second part: the article was wrong. Zero^talk 08:02, 22 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Interesting that Tel Aviv never had any district seat status, even though by the late 1930s it was one of the biggest cities in the Mandate (possibly the biggest at some points)... AnonMoos (talk) 16:30, 16 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Tel Aviv had smaller population than Jaffa in 1931, and larger in 1945. I'm wondering if that had anything to do with the decision to call the district Lydda instead; that would have been typically British. Zero^talk 08:34, 22 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Probably both Tulkarem and Tulkarm are acceptable, as are both Beersheva and Beersheba, but the article should use one variant consistently, unless quoting from historical documents. AnonMoos (talk) 16:47, 16 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

The 1920 Gazette, cited for two lists, uses the spelling Tulkeram, which I used but someone changed it. So actually three spellings occur. When I typed each list I (intended to) copy the spelling in the source. But it does look slightly strange that way. Should we follow the source in each case, or respell the names in their later (1940s) forms? Zero^talk 08:23, 22 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

I was the one who changed that, because "Tulkeram" looks rather odd nowadays. I think that modern spellings should be used, unless it is made clear and explicit that you're quoting from a specific historical document... AnonMoos (talk) 08:58, 22 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

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