Talk:Safavid dynasty/Archive 7

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Safavids were Persian

The ONLY official language of Iran during the Safavid empire was Persian, (Farsi). The founder of the dynasty was Persian. The court language was Persian and all official documents and laws were only written in Persian. The Safavids built the Persian city of Esfahan. I will remove all of the POV written by Turkic nationalists. An encyclopedia is a place for facts and truth, not lies and propoganda!![[User:]] 21:58, 20 February 2007 (UTC)


I do think Safavids were Persians . In Iran ; there is no real distinction between who speaks local language in home and who use Persian language . The political idea of the Safavids to regenerate Persia , and their way of using Persian language in public , shows that they considered themselves to be Persian ( Iranian ) and that's irrelevant to focus on their personal language ! That's just alike considering Israel government to be some what Iranian , just because president of Israel is originally Iranian Moshe Katsav !


~~Alborz Fallah 20 March 2007~~

from the Archive

Guys looks like we are starting from the same point again. Please do not discuss topics not related to this entry (for example Armenian genocide and etc). Lets get back to Safavids. Personally I am also of the opinion that we should not put ethnicity in the beginning (weather Shaykh Safi ad-din was Kurdish, Shah Ismail was half this, 1/4 this and 1/4 that, or the dynasty was Turkish speaking in the begining ..). But if people are happy with the current version that is fine. Indeed perhaps the current version edit SA. Vakilian might be acceptable to everyone? Is that so? Mardavich? Atabek? Azerbaijani? GM? Tajik? Kiumars?.. Although Tajik will be back in a couple days and have his own comments. By the way Evan Siegel makes an interesting comment based on Azerbaijani republic book (also mentioned by Mardavich) Soviet Azerbaijani scholarship is capable of a more restrained view of the Turkic character of the Safavids. Thus, one important monograph on “South Azerbaijan” notes that due to the cultural importance of the Persian language, the weight of the Persian-speaking bureaucracy and landlords, and the migration into the Persian heartland of the Safavid capital, the Persian language came to dominate the dynasty’s life. (A. S. Sumbatzadä, Sh. A. Taghiyeva, O. S. Malikov, Janubi Azarbayjan Tarikhinin Ocherki (1828-1917) (Elm: Baku, 1985), p. 208.). Of course the book he is quoting is from the republic of Azerbaijan and we do not use books from Iran or the republic of Azerbaijan is such enteries, but actually such similar statements can be found in Savory and the recent book I mentioned: Safavids: Recreation of a Persian Empire. For example from the time of Shah Abbas and specially afterwards both the Ghezelbash and Turkic were in decline and we do not know if the dynasty remained Turkic speaking then. If someone can archive and we can start from begining to see the discontents of both sides I would appreciate it. Also please just discuss issues related to Safavids only. We do know that Esmail I knew Arabic, Persian and Turkic from references so those are the languages we should mention. I would probably assume that Ismail might have spoken Gilaki since he was in Gilan and raised there but this is a guess thus not substantiated. Greek though could also be possible but we do not know. Thus Persian, Turkic and Arabic is the ones we have proof for and unless there is shred of positive evidence (specimen or a contemporary book that mentions another language) we should forego it. Personally I do not think the current version vakillian is too bad. What is the opinion of other readers? And once again lets please end discussions not related to Safavids. --alidoostzadeh 04:09, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Ali, you were the first who proposed Turkic-speaking above anyway, to replace Frye's quote in Iranica. Now you're against it? :) Sa.Vakilian's version is acceptable to me so far, and I provided my comments, which were incorporated. As for book, I wish both you and Mardavich would also agree to use "South Azerbaijan" term, i.e. the title of the book which you cite :). If you don't, then it's not worth picking a sentence out of context. And when you say "we don't know if they remained Turkic-speaking", just recall deep descendant of Safavid, Abbas II, who wrote verses in Azeri Turkic as Tani as late as 17th century. And the two major ruling tribes after Safavis, namely Afshar and Qajars were also Turkic-speaking.
Again, no one denies that influence of Persian wakils increased over time under Safavid rule, yet again, this does not replace the fact that Safavid dynasty was Turkic-speaking as was its founder Ismail. Again, Ali, "might have spoken" is not a strong enough of an argument against "spoken". I think we are going around a circle repeated the same thing, because some people don't want to accept the fact, but argue about the conjectures and interpretations. Again saying Turkic-speaking does not make them less Iranian, so it's important to secede from such intolerant thinking. Thanks. Atabek 11:09, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Most of the sources, even the ones written by pan-Turkists, indicate that is not clear if the dynasty remained Turkic speaking for long, therefore describing the dynasty as "Turkic speaking" is incorrect and misleading. And please don't archive open threads with ongoing discussions. --Mardavich 11:31, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Most of the sources statement needs a little classification as to which most. And your labeling pan-Turkist of every Wiki user from Azerbaijan resembles quite precisely that of User:Azerbaijani attempting to insert "Musavat is pan-Turkist" dub on every single page. This similarity is actually worth looking into from sock perspective. Nevertheless, the statement of yours above lacks any ground. Pan-Turkism is an idea of establishing supra state unifying all peoples of a single linguistic domain. As such the idea does not exist in practice in Azerbaijan, Turkey or any other Turkic country, it's not recorded in their laws or constitutions, neither country aspires building such a state. Let it alone, Prof. Sumbatzada, who is quite far from being pan-Turkist either. So accusation above is nothing more than a personal attack by yourself and/or(?) :) user Azerbaijani. Atabek 14:11, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Why are you diverting the discussion again? I label a source however I like to, it's just my opinion about the source, it doesn't mean that you have to agree with my personal views about a book or its author. So please cease the personal attacks, you have been repeatedly warned by other users and administrators that you should only be discussing the article at hand, not other editors. User:Azerbaijani has absolutely no relations to me whatsoever. If you believe otherwise, please be my guest and file a request at WP:RFCU. --Mardavich 14:52, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

We know that later Safavids were Turkic speakers too. Descendant of Shah Abbas I Shah Abbas II was a Turkic poet, and Iranica says the following about the whole dynasty:

The origins of the Safavids are clouded in obscurity. They may have been of Kurdish origin (see R. Savory, Iran Under the Safavids, 1980, p. 2; R. Matthee, "Safavid Dynasty" at iranica.com ), but for all practical purposes they were Turkish-speaking and Turkified.

And this is what Adam Olearius said about the language spoken at Safavids court (it was after the reign of Shah Abbas I, I took this from the archive, but the source is not available online now):

Most of the Persians, with their own language, learn also the Turkish especially in those provinces which have been long under the jurisdiction of the Grand Seignor, as Shirvan, Adirbeitzan, Iraq, Baghdad, and Eruan, where children are taught the Turkish language and by this means it is so common at court that a man seldom hears anyone speak the Persian; as in the Grand Seignior’s country, they ordinarily speak the Sclavonian, and in the Mogul’s the Persian. But in the province of Fars and at Shiraz, they speak only the Persian language.

(Source: "The Travels of Olearius in 17th century Persia" (Translated by John Davies (1662); online: http://depts.washington.edu/uwch/silkroad/texts/olearius/travels.html) Grandmaster 11:58, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The link doesn't open. But by Persians they mean people from Persia (even Sherwan or Irevan), not necessarily ethnic Persians. That is why some travellers have also called the Ghezelbash as Persians. This is the convention of travellers when travelling to a geographic region. I did not say the later Safavids knew Turkic or did not, but what I said is the dynasty's court language became Persianized after Shah Abbas weakened the Ghezelbash and moved his court to Esfahan and his descendants kept the capital there. That is initially there was more Turkic probably during Esmail's era while Persian was present. Later on the tide reveresed. Also Atabek, Afshar and Qajars were part of the Ghezelbash, not the Safavid dynasty as you mentioned. What I opposed was the inclusion of purely ethnic related stuff in the introduction. Because one can easily introduce that Safavids origin hailed from Persian Kurdistan (consensus of scholars) and put Kurdish in the introduction and etc... Or go further with Frye and say that Azerbaijanis are mainly descendants of Iranian speakers. Or bring Minorsky's statement that Turkic speaking does not mean Turkic ethnicity. These are stuff that I believe we agreed should not be in the introduction. I agree that the Safavids for the most parts were Turkish speaking although I believe their primary court language became Persian after Shah Abbas made Esfahan capital. Even the Ghezelbash historians wrote in Persian. Turkish could have still been alive but for all practical purposes it was overshadowed by Persian in Esfahan and in the courts. But lets get to the issue here. Looks like Atabek agrees with Mr. Vakilian's edits. I personally although object to putting ethnic related sentence in the begining, do not mind the current version. So lets see if we can build a consensus around this. Looks like GM is okay with the current version. I am not going to speak on behalf on Tajik, Mardavich, Kiumars, Azerbaijani. --alidoostzadeh 16:15, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I think we can progress by addressing the issues one by one. As for the language of Safavids, judging by the sources it looks like later Safavids were Turkic speakers too, and the primary language at their court was Turkic according to Olearius. At the same time, the language of bureaucracy was predominantly Persian, so the two languages coexisted. The text is not available online anymore, but it was checked by many users while it was there. And indeed, by Persians Olearius meant all the citizens of Persian empire. Grandmaster 21:30, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Minorsky says that Shah Esmail I was bilingual from an early age. Also all the Safavid shah's were bilingual. But can you first tell me what are the issues here? And what issues do you have with the current version of Mr. Vakilian? --alidoostzadeh 21:33, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I already said to Mr. Vakilian on his talk that I'm happy with his edits in general. I think he did a great job in presenting the facts in a neutral fashion. Grandmaster 21:36, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Okay thanks that is good to know. Tajik will probably be back in a day or two. I am not going to speak on behalf of Mardavich or Azerbaijan or Kiumars. But I am also satisfied with the current version and I think it is really time to end these discussions. --alidoostzadeh 21:39, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I only think that the first line: Safavids are considered the greatest empire does not sound good. We should say something like Safavid dynasty is considered the establishers of the greatest Iranian empire, etc. Also Arabic conquest is mentioned twice in the lead, it is better not to be repetitive. Grandmaster 21:43, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Also, I would say that Turkic was the cultural language too, since Safavids created poetry in that language, however Persian was the language of the state apparatus along with being cultural medium. They were indeed bilingual and spoke both languages, but they spoke Turkic as primary language at their court and domestic affairs. Grandmaster 21:45, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
It is true Safavids created both Persian and Turkish poetry. For example I recall a quatrain in Persian from Shah Tahmasp. But by judging by the amount of manuscripts we have from the Safavid era, if we look at the works produced all over the empire, Persian clearly overwhelms Tukirsh by many factors. About their domestic affair I think it was mainly in the hands of their Wakils. Their military affair was probably done in Turkish at least up to the time of Shah Abbas. Shah Abbas and the school of Esfahan many of whom were available at the court. Hasan Rumlu a Ghezelbash wrote one of the most important books on Safavid history during that era in Persian. I think the current balance is right as you mentioned since it shows both views which are not contradictory.

Toynbee's assessment of the role of the Persian language is worth quoting in more detail[1]:

[1]

--alidoostzadeh 21:55, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

question

One question, wasnt Sheikh Safi al-Din also Persian?Azerbaijani 03:46, 17 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
He was actually Kurdish but many dialects of Kurdish like Kermanshahi are mutually inteligble to Persian. Amazingly we have manuscripts of Safwat As-Safa before the Safavids (thanks to Togan) and the clear distortions of these manuscripts were made to hide the Shaykhs ancestry and later on Safavids tried to make claims like the Shaykh was Seyyed, Persian (through Sassanid heritage made for shi'ism) and perhaps even Turkish for their ghezelbash followers. Thus twice the word Kurd was removed from these manuscripts which in my opinion is clear 100% evidence. The Shaykh himself was a Shafi'ite like 80%+ of Kurds and virtually all Sunni Kurds today. Virtually all Sunni Turkish speakers have been Hanafite since their conversion to Islam. Khorasani Iranians were mainly Hanafi also and that is why Pakistan and Afghanistan and Tajikistan are also all Hanafi. Imam Abu Hanifa himself was actually Iranian. Another clear 100% evidence that the Shaykh was Kurdish is that there no record of Turks converting to Shafi'ism. Indeed Sunni Turks and Hanafism went hand in hand. [2]

I watered that this information on this article for the sake of compromise, but in the long run all the scholarly sources 10-20 years from now will have this information anyway and it is not information that can be hidden since texts of these ancient manuscripts of Safwat As-Safa are available.. And two contemporary sources Safwat As-Safa and the history of Hamdullah Mustawafi is what we have of the Shaykh. Some informations just take longer to digest in the scholarly world although already consensus by Safavid historians has been reached with this regard and the Shaykhs Sunnism is now a given. But I do think some scholars have overlooked the mutual relatioshhip between Shaf'ite and Kurds and how these two factors really complement each other strongly. That is both factors help prove that the Shaykh was Shafi'ite and a Kurd. Thus the male line of Safavid's is not Turkic and goes directly down to Pirouz Shah Zarin Kolah which is purely Iranic name: Piruz(victor)+Shah(King)+Zarin(golden)+Kolah(hat). But they were Turkified in speech later on much like most Azerbaijanis who genetically do not share genetic patterns with Yakuts[3]. Actually the Oghuz Turks according to Kashghari were Persianized and used a lot of Persian words and had mixed with Persians. So this phenomenon of turkification is probably pre-Islamic and started with Soghdians. Anyways let me know you opinion on the current article. --alidoostzadeh 03:51, 17 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

attempts at a new consensus

Guys I archived the past discussion. Too many things were being put not related to the Safavids. About the current version looks like Mr. Vakilian and Atabek agree. I personally do not think it is too bad, and I have no problem with the current version. I am not going to give my opinion on behalf of other users so if anyone has a problem with the current version and disagrees with, please state it. --alidoostzadeh 21:10, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Users who agree with the current version: Vakilian, Atabek, Grandmaster, Ali Doostzadeh. I would like to hear comments from other users in hopefully finishing this dispute (Pejman, Mardavich, Tajik, Azerbaijani, Kiumars) --alidoostzadeh 21:55, 16 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Ali, the article in its current shape (full of English and other mistakes!) should not be presented even for voting. It really needs a good re-write which can open the door to more arguments. Let’s get it close to a presentable level first otherwise we will end up arguing about changing an “a” to a “the”! We are not in a hurry, are we? Kiumars 19:27, 17 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I think the grammer can be fixed. It is the content that we need to agree upon first. If you see any grammatical mistakes feel free to fix it. But right now I need more comments from other users if they agree with the content of the article? --alidoostzadeh 20:29, 17 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I think we should ask some neutral native English speaker to help us with the language. Also, what's up with removal of the word Turkic throughout the article? Can anyone provide reasons for this Turkophobia? And what's the point in a statement that Ismail was an Iranian Azeri? There's no such ethnicity, and back in the day all Azeris were Iranian by nationality. Let's stick to the wording we agreed on, or at least observe neutrality. Grandmaster 11:40, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I think the word Turkic speaker or Azeri speaker is correct. I thought that was what we agreed upon in the introduction of SA. Vakillian? I have re-added that section. --alidoostzadeh 16:01, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Fixes

I fixed a few English mistakes and I think the followings need to be addressed too.

  • The opening paragraph: Safavids (1501-1722); according to the list of the Safavids kings the dynasty lasted till 1760 (Ismail III), it was the empire that ended in 1722-1736! (See the Safavid Shahs of Iran).This discrepancy needs to be explained/sorted.
  • Local States:
  • 1. “There were too many local states in Iran” is bad English, consider changing to “many” or “numerous”, etc.
  • 2. 1500 change to 1500CE. In its current format it can be confused for the number of the rulers on the first read.
  • Founder of …
  • 1. “His advent to power was due to Turkman tribes”; bad English, consider changing to “was with the support of the …”or “due to the support/help/etc of the Turkman tribes of ..”, etc.
  • Beginning!
  • 1. (Ottoman Turkish for "red heads" due to their red headgear), this is already mentioned in the section above it. Delete one.
  • 2. Safavid's power in Iran was based on the military power of Qizilbash Turkic tribes. It was initially but not thru the dynasty!

I stopped at this point in the article, I will continue later this weekend maybe. Kiumars 05:57, 17 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Kiumars, Qizilbash were the major political force in Safavid state, at least till the reign of Shah Abbas I. Initially, their impact on Safavid state was the same as that of janissaries in Ottoman Turkey. But increasingly they integrated with bureacracy when appointed as governors of several provinces. There was no other military power than Qizilbash in Safavid state until the reign of Shah Abbas. Also saying Qizilbash stands for Ottoman Turkish is not quite precise, as Qizilbash means the same in any Oghuz Turkic language, not just in Ottoman Turkish. Regarding Turkman/Turkoman/Turcoman, I would suggest using the spelling (whatever it is) used by major experts such as, in this case, Savory, Frye or Minorsky. Atabek 07:51, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Rewrote the lead. 1. The article is about Safavid dynasty, therefore it should say: Safavid dynasty were... etc. No need to mention Islamic conquest twice. Savory quote is out of place. If it is there to prove that Safavids were ethnic Iranian, we can add quotes stating otherwise for balance. I think the article clealy explains ethnic background of Ismail. Please share your opnions. Grandmaster 12:16, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The current version is still POV. It's kind of funny that the same people who always explain that the Safavids had "no ethnic identity" persist on mentioning the Turkic language in the first sentence of the article. At the same time, they close their eyes and pruposely reject the fact that - despite their Turkic language (let's not mention the other fact that the Safavids were bi- and multi-lingual, some of them having a Turcoman mother, others having a Georgian or a Persian mother), the Safavids did have a clear Iranian identity. This is mentioned in Iranica and EI, and there are other sources that mention this. John R. Perry, Proferssor of Persian literature and language, in comment on Roger Savory's "Iran under the Safavids" (Cambridge University Press; one of the standard primary references on Safavid history), explains in the "International Journal of Middle East Studies, Vol. 15, No. 2, pp. 300-302":
  • "... The background of the tripod basis of Safavid power - the pre-Islamic kingly glory (farr), Imāmī Shi'ite eschatology, and Sufi spiritual mastery - is skillfully sketched. ..."
This point is more important than any language spoken by the Safavids. Safavid power, and their claim on the throne of Iran was based on this: their Iranian identity, and their belief to be the reincarnation of the epic kings of the past. Unlike the previous Turkic and Mongol rulers, the Safavids identified themselvs with Iran and with Iran's Persian identity. One of the first things Shah Ismail did after defeating the Shaybanids was to ask a famous poet in Jām to write an Shahnama-like epic about his victories and his newly established dynasty. Shah Tahmasp patronized the creation of a Shahnama that - until today - is considered the greatest of all. At certain points, more than 10 different artists, including Behzad, were working on it (see the detailed information in Encyclopaedia of Islam). How can you deny all of that? Tājik 13:58, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
No one denies anything. It is there: "reasserted Iranian political Identity". I don't think they identified themselves with Persian identity, why then would they personally write Turkic poetry? Is writing Turkic poetry part of Persian identity? I think the role of each language should be objectively reflected in the article. Grandmaster 14:08, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The Ottoman sultans wrote poetry in Persian. Does that mean that the Ottomans did not identify themselvs with their Oghuz Turkic heritage?!
  • "... These Ottoman sultans received a good education during their youth, in which they learned Arabic as a scientific language and Persian as the perfect language for literary expression. As a result many of the subsequent Ottoman sultans, too, showed an interest in Persian literature and even wrote Persian poems themselves. Prince Cem Sultan (Jam Soltān) (d. 1495), Selim I, Süleyman (Solaymān) I the Magnificent (r. 1520-66), Prince Bayezid (d. 1562), and Murād III (r. 1574-95) wrote Persian poetry, collected in divāns (poetry collections), which have survived to the present day (Aydén, pp. 45-56). ..." Iranica
It's a well-known fact that the Ottomans, despite being a highly Persianized family, were still very Turkic in identity. Some of the Safavids may have written poems in Azeri Turkish (others, such as Tahmasp Mirzā and Sām Mirzā, wrote in Persian!), but the ethnical identity of the dynasty was clearly Persian. They believed in the Aryan concept of farr, totally unique if compared to previous ruling houses. This is exactly what Minorsky means when he says that "the language of the Safavids was not their race". They were clearly Persian and Iranian in identity - even more than the Seljuqs. "Reasserted Iranian political Identity" is quite not the truth. The Safavids were identified with Persianness and Persian identity by their nighbours, to an extent that the surrounding Sunni empires even tried to abandon the Persian language because they identified it with the Shia Islam of the Safavids:
  • "... Like his father,
    Ḥoseyn Bāyqarā encouraged the developement of Persian literature and literary talent in every way possible [...] At the same time Sultan Ḥoseyn also allowed his famous vizier, the noted poet ʿAlī-Šīr Navā'ī, to further the cause of his mother tongue, the Turkish spoken by the Chaghatay people and to champion its importance as a language of high culture [...] This developement was certainly related, at least in part, to the fact that in the early 10th/16th century Persia was converted by the Safavid dynasty to the Shi'ite branch of Islamic teaching, wheras Central-Asia remained strictly Sunnite. Chaghatay became to some extent the language this religious community, and Persian literary works from the Safavid realm had an aura of heresy. ..." B. Spuler, "Central Asia in the Mongol and Timurid Periods", p. 174/175, Encyclopaedia Iranica
All of this is pruposely being ignored in the article, and that's why it is POV! Tājik 14:35, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Persian identity is POV, not supported by most sources. They were a religious group, not nationalistic. Their claims on Sasanian descent were politically motivated and were aimed to establish legitimacy for their reign, but had nothing to do with ethnic identity. They did not care about that, they were promoting Shia branch of Islam as a base for unification of people of Iran, using force at times. I think Mr. Sa.vakilian was making a good effort in building consensus. But then certain users undid almost all of his edits. We can apply for dispute resolution if we are unable to resolve our differences. Grandmaster 14:28, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Saying that the "Safavids were Turkic-speaking" is POV, because the Safavid family (and the many women of the royal harem) was much larger than just the rulers. Writing poetry does not define language and identity. If that were the case, then the Ottomans would have been "ethnic Persians and Persian-speakers": Yet, noone claims such a nonsense in the Ottoman page. This article, however, is constantly under POV attack. The Encyclopaedia of Islam wrote a 55-pages-long article about the Safavids, and in no place does it claim that "Safavids were Turkic-speaking". In here, people desperately want to push for this POV. If you are not happy with the words "Persian identity", then also keep out the POV about the Turkish language! Tājik 14:35, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Well we know the Safavid's were bilingual or perhaps tri-lingual (if we count Arabic). It is safe to say they spoke more Turkic in the begining of their dynasty and more Persian in the end. Or perhaps to say Azeri-Turkish was a prominent language in their courts but Persian was the predominant culture language of their empire (just judging by the overhwleming amount of manuscripts written in Persian relative to Turkish from that era.) Specially Esfahan was and is a predominant Persian speaking city. But they definitely knew different languages. Their ethnic background at least from the time of Esmail I was mixed as reflected by the article currently. By the way Savory mentions an interesting paragraph: Why is there a such confusion about the origins of this important dynasty , which reasserted Iranian identity and established an independent Iranian state after eight and half centuries of rule by foreign dynasties? The reason is that the Safavids, having been brought to power by the dynamic force of a certain ideology, deliberately set out to obliterate any evidence of their own origins which would weaken the thrustof this ideology and call in question the premises on which it was based on. Also Safavids primary identity was Shi'i Islam (which is part of national identity), they were also supporting Shahnameh all over and that shows pre-Islamic Persian nationality being supported as well. But what is interesting from this quote in Savory is that had the Safavid's population access to the oldest extant manuscripts and knew Shaykh Safi ad-din Ardabili was a Sunni, Shafi'ite and Kurds (who were fighting mainly for the Ottomon sides), the dynasty would have suffered problems of legitimacy. I think we need to mention this fact that the Safavid's tried to obliterate their origin. And then they tried make up new ones (Seyyed, Persian Sassanid, Turkomen) and etc to shore up their legitimacy amongst shi'ites, Iranian Persians and the Ghezelbash. Thus any book written during Safavid era or any post-Safavid manuscript of Safwat As-Safa which claims the Shaykh was a Shi'i is unreliable from every aspect. At least we should mention their deliberate attempt at obliterate their own origin for a sake of legitimacy and this is clear from the distortions in safwat As-Safa. --alidoostzadeh 16:08, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I say: just leave this language debate out of the intro. Present the major aspects of the dynasty:
  • extreme heterodox Shiism
  • Tassawuf mysticism
  • a kind of Iranian nationalism, reviving the epic past and identity of the region.
This is according to J. Perry (and R. Savory) the tripod basis of Safavid power, NOT the languages they spoke.
Everything else should be explained in detail in the article, but NOT in the intro:
Shah Ismail was of mixed Aq Qoyunlu-Turcoman, Pontik Greek, Tat-Persian, and Kurdish origin. His kingdom was dominated by two rival groups: the Turcoman military, the back-bone of Safavid power, and the influential Persian bureaucrats and religious authorities, the back-bone of the Safavid da'wa and religious propaganda. For decades, the Turcoman Khans controled the fate of the kingdom. They even chose the kings, as it was in the case of Muhammad Khudabanda: actually, Tahmasp's son Haydar was appointed by his father to become the next Shah. But since Haydar had a Georgian mother and was only supported by the Ustajlu, the Kizilbash put him to death and appointed his brother Khudabanda (born to a minor Turcoman noble) Shah. All of this suddenly ended with the reign of Abbas the Great, himself son of a Turcoman mother: he ended the suprimacy of the Turcomans, moved his capital from Turcoman-dominated Qazvin to the Persian city of Isfahan, appointed Armenians, Georgians, Jews, and Persians to high positions within the government, and changed the Turco-Persian face of the Safavid kingdom into a multi-ethnical and multi-cultural empire. The Safavids patronized Persian high culture and - to a lesser degree - Azerbaijani-Turkic and Armenian art and literature. They attracted Arab saints and ulema, while - due to growing orthodox tendencies within the ruling clan - many Persian artists left Iran for India.
The Turkic poems of the Shahs, the Persian poems of the Shahs and princes, and the art-work of Tahmasp should be mentioned in the culture-section. However, it is totally POV to claim that the Safavids - a multi-ethnical and multi-lingual family - were "Turkic-speaking". Tājik 16:46, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Tajik, before claiming:
The Safavids patronized Persian high culture and - to a lesser degree - Azerbaijani-Turkic and Armenian art and literature
Will be so kind to provide samples or references to Armenian art and literature which Safavid promoted. Also please, provide references to justify the fact that Safavids patronized Azerbaijani-Turkic culture to lesser extent than Persian high culture, and why is Persian is indicated with the word "high" anyway. Does not it sound a bit racist, when you claim that one ethnic group has high culture? Majority of modern Europeans are on average better educated and can better promote their culture than modern Iranians, this does not imply that Europeans have "high" culture. Atabek 22:52, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Atabek 07:51, 19 February 2007; I was not denying the importance of the Qizilbash, what I said was that they lost their military value later in 1590s as the article mentions it later. So the sentense “Safavid's power in Iran was based on the military power of Qizilbash Turkic tribes” needs to be qualified and show that the importance was not throughout the dynasty. Shall we use your own explanations and change the article to “Qizilbash were the main military force of the Safavid's from the beginning until 1590s when Shah Abbas set up a modern army in Iran following repeated defeats to the Ottomans and Uzbeks and losing Georgia, Armania, Mashahd and Sistan.”? The article already says this further down. Kiumars 19:17, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

@ Atabek: the term "Persian high culture" is used in
Encyclopaedia Iranica and in Encyclopaedia of Islam
. That is because the Persian culture was regarded as the highest level of human civilization for many centuries. Until the fall of the Ottomans, the Persian kings of the past remained the model for almost all Islamic kingdoms, and Persian scientists and scholars greatly influenced the entire Islamic world. See the reference I gave above: it clearly says that "Persian was the language of high culture".
As for the Safavid culture and the Shahs patronizing Persian high culture: give me your E-Mail address and I will send you the entire Safavid article from Encyclopaedia of Islam. Persian language and Persian culture were the standard and the model for all other surrounding culture. The vast majority of books were written in Persian. Only the Mughals of India created more Persian books than the Safavids. As for modern Europeans: yes, they DO have a high culture. That'S the reason why you and me communicate in the language of European high culture (=English), why we dress like Europeans and Americans, and why almost everyone in the world tries to be like the Westerners. They western societies dominate all aspects of life, from simple life-style to military and science. 500 years ago, the Persian language had the same position accross all of Western- and Central Asia and India. This is a known fact. Tājik 23:37, 19 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Tajik can you please e-mail the whole article from Encyclopedia of Islam. Thanks. --alidoostzadeh 00:36, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I understand Ismail killed his mother, does anyone know when and why? Kiumars 01:27, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Safavids being Turkic speakers is verifiable info. Iranica says so:

The origins of the Safavids are clouded in obscurity. They may have been of Kurdish origin (see R. Savory, Iran Under the Safavids, 1980, p. 2; R. Matthee, "Safavid Dynasty" at iranica.com ), but for all practical purposes they were Turkish-speaking and Turkified. [4]

Other important Azeri poets were Shah Esma’il Safawi “Khata’i" (1487 – 1524) and Fozuli (about 1494 – 1556,q.v.), an outstanding Azeri poet. During 17th – 20th centuries a rich Azeri literature continued to flourish, but classical Persian exercised great influence on the language and literary expression. On the other hand, many Azeri words (about 1.200) entered Persian (still more in Kurdish), since Iran was governed mostly by Azeri-speaking rulers and soldiers since 16th century (Doerfer, 1963-75); these loanwords refer mainly to administration, titles and conduct of war. [5]

The Azeri-speaking rulers of the 16th century were Safavids, as we know. Both early and late Safavids were Turkic-speakers, according to the sources. Turkic language was spoken at the court of later Safavid rulers, as attested by Olearius. As for the poetry, both Ottoman and Safavid rulers were Turkic speakers, but Safavids had more Turkic identity, as it was noted by Lewis:

It is ironic that in the increasingly angry correspondence between the two monarchs that preceded the outbreak of hostilities, the sultan wrote to the shah in Persian, the language of urban, cultivated gentlemen, while the Shah wrote to the Sultan in Turkish - the language of his rural and tribal origins.

Bernard Lewis. The Middle East. ISBN: 0684832801

Indeed, why would one write in the language that was not established as a cultural one at that time, especially if he had a chance to respond in Persian, since the letter of Turkish sultan was in Persian? The answer is simple: Ismail felt more comfortable writing in Turkish, which was his primary language. But I see that we are going round in circles. This article has been a source of dispute for more than 2 years now, why don’t we put an end to it once and for all? Why don’t we apply for official mediation? Let’s get knowledgeable and neutral third party users involved, present all the sources and quotes and see what they propose. But the results of mediation should be binding for everyone. Grandmaster 12:08, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I agree with Ali that the attempts of Safavids to conceal their origin should be mentioned in the article. Grandmaster 12:11, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Now judging Turkic vs Persian language, I would say that Turkic was more a domestic language, which they used at their court, while Persian was more an official language, which was used in administration. Safavids patronized both Persian and Azeri culture, so both languages could be considered cultural, considering that they wrote Azeri poetry, but greatly supported Persian literature and cultural traditions. Grandmaster 12:23, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

@ Grandmaster: the problem with you is that you only pick the information from Iranica that you like while you totally reject others that you do not like. Iranica, for example (as well as the Encyclopaedia of Islam and other sources) state that the Safavids were the first native Iranian dynasty to unite Iran after the Arab invasion. You reject this (although this information is given in the main articles) and claim that "Zands wer ethe first native Iranian dynasty" (which is totally wrong anyway, because even if the Safavids were not native Iranians, the Afghan Hotakis were "native Iranians" and they ruled before the Zand dynasty).
Ismail's letters to the Ottoman sultan do not mean anything, and claiming that "he was more comfortable with Turkic" is pure speculation, keeping in mind that Ismail's letters to Babur were in Persian and not in any Turkic language. Using Azeri Turkish in his letters (those letters were rather poems) could have had - and probably did have - another purpose. It's also interesting the Ottoman sultan wrote his letters in Persian and not in Turkish. Now, following your logic, does that mean that the Ottoman sultan was "more comfortable with persian than with Ottoman Turkish"?! I do not think so. Ismail's letters to the sultan were pure provocation. He wrote in the language of the Aq Qoyunlu who had been defeated by the Ottomans a few decades earlier. The former Aq Qoyunlu tribes of Anatolia were now known as "Qizilbash" ... so, using their lanbguage was rather a political move. Ismail wrote poetry in Persian and he claimed to be a descendant of the Sassanians. I do not think that he "felt uncomfortable" with Persian.
Back to the toppic: either we mention ALL information and ALL infos - no matter if YOU like it or not - or we do not mention any. The question of language has NO IMPORTANCE and should NOT be mentioned in the intro. It neither had ANY effect on the dynasty nor on Iran's history. What DOES matter was the extreme ghulat Shi'ism of the dynasty that managed to convert entire Iran to Shi'ism, and the re-establishment of the "farr" - the pre-Islamic kingly glory - that revived the ancient tradition of Iranian monarchy which lasted until the Islamic revolution. Tājik 18:46, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Tajik, you're going in circles around a deadlock point, suggesting the same again: to use some Iranica references and not others. Again, Ismail not only wrote to Ottoman Sultan in Azeri Turkic, he also wrote his poetry in this language. People write poetry in a certain language under two circumstances: 1) ask/demanded/paid by someone to do so; 2) consider it their own tongue and feel comfortable expressing their thoughts in it. Obviously, Ismail wasn't the first case, so he was clearly the second. If he didn't feel that Azeri Turkic was his mother tongue, how could he be comfortable writing in it by his own choice? And don't you think that given the fact that Persian was lingua franca in Anatolia and Azerbaijan, and the fact that Qizilbash were largely anti-Ottoman, why would their leader use Turkic language, and not say Arabic to which Safavis claimed their ancestry? It's clear that Ismail wanted to establish new, unique identity, that is Azeri-Turkic speaking, Shiite dynasty, which was cohesively directed against Ottomans and Uzbeks.
There is nothing that makes Safavis a "native Iranian" dynasty in racial (read, Persian) sense as you always imply. Most of Ismail's ancestry comes from Caucasus, Azerbaijan and Eastern Anatolia, which had very little to do with Persians (Fars) people. So the reference to native Iranian is absolutely void, as the very definition of native Iranian changed over time and it's not the same today as it was in times of Safavis. Atabek 19:11, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Atabek is absolutely right, and also, Iranica clearly says that Zands were first ethnic Iranian dynasty, and Afgan rulers don’t count, as they were not legitimate rulers of Iran. Btw, David Morgan says the same thing as Iranica about Zands. Grandmaster 19:34, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

And Ismail was not the only one -- I will start posting the scanned faximilled of letters in Azerbaijani by various Safavid shahs today. --AdilBaguirov 20:06, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

@ Grandmaster: your claims are nothing but assuptions. You were given scholarly sources explaining that a) Islamil not only wrote in Azeri but also in Persian b) that his language was not his race (Minorsky!) c) that he regarded himself as the reincarnation of the ancient Iranian epic kings (in total contrast to previous Arab, Turkic, and Mongol rulers). Yet, you reject all of these sources (some of them written by the leading expert on Safavid history, Roger M. Savory) and base all of your assumptions on his remaining Azeri poetry and his Turcoman soldiers. According to your logic, the Ottomans were "ethnic Persians" because they promoted Persian language, wrote their letters to Ismail in Persian, and wrote Persian poetry themselvs. Does this sound logical to you? Your claim that "Ismail wanted to create a unique Shiite Azeri-Turkic identity" is pure POV and has no support in any reliable or scholarly article, wherelse the most authoritative sources (Minorsky and Savory!) agree that he wanted to create a unique Persian (!) Shiite identity. All of the sources are given above! I should you even a direct quote from Iranica which explains that the shift toward favouring Turkic languages in Anatolia and Asia was mostly due to the establishment of Safavid Shiism in Persia, and the fact, that the Persian language was from now on identified with Safavid Shiism - one of the most important reasons for the Ottoman and Timurid sultans to promote Turkic languages (as the "languages of Sunniism") in contrast to the Persian identity of the Safavids ("Persian Shia"). And your comment on the Afghan rulers is pure POV. Who are you to tell whether Afghans were legitimate rulers or not?! They openly challenged the Safavids, defeated them, ended their dynasty, established a short-lived dynasty of their own centered in Isfahan, faught the Ottomans, and were finally removed by another dynasty. I do not accept your POV version, and it's really a shame that this article is so messed up. I do not think that there can be any consensus as long as the Turkish fraction persists on contradicting
Encyclopaedia Iranica, and only focuses on the Turkish language of Ismail's poetry, totally ignoring the message of his poetry, the strong Persian nationalist symbolism of his poetry, and the revival of the forgotten tradition of Iranian monarchy - the farr. As I have already said: either we mention BOTH the Turkic language AND the Persian identity of the dynasty, or we leave both of them out of the article. The current article is a laughable joke compared to the excellent article of the Encyclopaedia of Islam (which is the standard refernce work of oriental studies) - and this is due to the Turkish POV forced on the article. Tājik 20:22, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply
]
PS: here is the quote of Vladimir Minorsky:
  • "... The question of the language used by Shah Ismail is not identical with that of his ‘‘race’’ or ‘‘nationality’’. His ancestry was mixed: one of his grandmothers was a Greek princess of Trebizond. Hinz, Aufstieg, 74, comes to the conclusion that the blood in his veins was chiefly non-Turkish. Already, his son Shah Tahmasp began to get rid of his Turcoman praetorians. ..." - V. Minorsky, The Poetry of Shah Ismail, Bulletin of the School of Oriental and African Studies, University of London, Vol. 10, No. 4. (1942), pp. 1053
Tājik 20:30, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

yeah, everyone saw this quote, but then then "one of his grandfathers was Uzun Hasan, a Turcoman emperor" (attribute this quote to me). Also, if the blood in his veins was chiefly non-Turkish, it was certainly not Persian, Afghan or Tajik either, and how much exactly of Tati, Talysh or Kurdish blood was there is also not well established -- in any case, it was not much in Ismail. As of his son getting rid of "Turcoman praetorians", that's not a valid argument -- first, it was really Shah Abbas who really undertook that process, and secondly, it doesn't testify to unTurkishness, rather, it's simple to explain as power struggle, and frankly, after the bad advice Qizilbash's given to Ismail in 1514, any other fully Turkic person would have done the same -- cleansed his ranks of the "old-timers". --AdilBaguirov 20:45, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

You are right, Adil. He was of mixed origin, and he was not more or less Persian, Balouch, German, Italian, Kurd, etc as he was Turcoman. So why should we leave out his other origins and only focus on the highly controversial claim that "he was Turk"?! Only because of his poetry?! If that were the case, then we would have to update the Ottoman dynasty article, claiming that the ottomans were "ethnic Persians", only because their Sultans wrote poetry in Persian and favoured Persian over other languages. Tājik 20:52, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The site does not claim that he was of purely Turkic ancestry, it says that Shah Ismail had Azeri Turkic, Pontic Greek and Kurdish origins. Those three are established based on research presented on this talk page, i.e. Ismail's ascendance to Akkoyunlu Turkomans, Ismail's mother being half-Pontic Greek, and Ismail's ancestor Sheykh Safi having Kurdish origins as claimed by Savory. There is nothing Persian (or Afghan or Tajik for that matter) established in Ismail's genetic origin or supported by any scholar.
Now, if you argue about Turkic-speaking part, that's linguistic origin, which was clearly Turkic, because Ismail used this language in official correspondence, state affairs, and poetry. You have not provided poetry of Ismail in other languages to the same extent and amount as in Turkic. If you have those, please, provide them for further discussion. In absence of facts telling the opposite, Ismail chiefly used the Turkic language, hence he was Turkic-speaking regardless of his genetic makeup. We agreed on this earlier with Ali as well, and this is not something that is disputed by any of the cited scholars. Atabek 21:27, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Atabek, this article is not about Islamil, it's about the entire Safavid dynatsy. And that dynasty DID have other genetic origins, including Georgian, Armenian, Persian, and even Afghan and other Turkic traces. Ismail's grandmother was a Pontic Greek princess who claimed descent from the German king
Charlesmagne
. Safi ud-Din Ardabeli wrote poetry in Old-Azari and in Persian, but not in Kurdish or Turkish.
Your claims about what you call linguistic origin is pure speculation, because we do not know his mother-tongue. As Ali has pointed out, his mother-tongue could have been Greek and not Turkish or Persian. The ammount of poetry does not define ethnicity or language. Bayram Khan, the Qara Qoyunlu-Qizilbash advisor of the Mughal Shah Akbar, wrote most of his poetry in Persian, while only 1/3 of his poetry is in Azeri. Should we now assume that Bayram Khan - known as Bayram-e Turkaman ("Bayram the Turkmen") - was not a Turcoman but a Persian?!
We should not underestimate the importance of Minorsky's statement. Shah's Ismail's language may have been Turkish (to be correct: the language of most of his poetry), but his ethnic origin and his ethnic identity was certainly non-Turkish. Like almost all Azeris, the Safavids, too, were of Iranian origin. They had adopted the Turkish language because of the Turkification processes that took place in the area. But they never lost their original Iranian identity that distinguished them from the Ottoman Turks, or from the Turcoman tribal confederations of the Caucasus.
Except for a few exceptional situations, the Turkish language had no importzance in the developement of Safavid identity. As pointed out by J. Perry and R. Savory (and I say it again: Savory is an authority on the subject! Even if certain people do not want to believe this!), the base of Safavid identity and power were:
  • extreme Shiism
  • Sufi mysticism AND
  • Persian nationalism (reviving the forgotten tradition of Iranian monarchy, in contrast to 800 years of Arab, Mongol, and Turkic rule in Persia)
These three elements were the base of Safavid sucess in Iran. This is exactly why Ismail compared himself to
Rustam
and Fereydoon, and why he claimed descent from the Sassanians (in contrast to his Turkic and Mongol neighbours who claimed descent from "Turanian heroes").
The Qizilbash movement itself is a continuation of an ancient Iranian cult. Even though at the time of the Safavids the Qizilbash were predominantly Turkish-speakers, the root of the movement was definitely Iranic. And, as pointed out by the great Turkish scholar A. Gölpinarli, the Turcoman Qizilbash were "spiritual descendants" of the previous Iranian movements - all of them centered in Azerbaijan, all of them strictly linked to Persian kingly glory and nationalism, from Mazdak to Babak to Ismail I.
I have no problems with mentioning Ismail's cultural importance for the developement of Azeri-Turkish literature. But this should NOT be mentioned in the intro, because the Turkish language was not as important as some in here claim, and it was not part of Safavid identity. The rivival of ancient Iranian cults, the rivival of the forgotten Iranian monarchy, and the revival of Persian identity under the banner of Shia Islam WAS important and marked the beginning of modern Iran. Tājik 22:10, 20 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Again, Tajik, the current page does not say Ismail or Safavis were Turks (although Frye said exactly so). It says that they were Turkic-speaking, which is a statement of a fact supported by many scholars. Since Ismail's mother, Halima Begum, was the daughter of Akkoyunlu Uzun Hassan, a Turkoman leader, it's not hard to assume which language she spoke. Or do you think the daughter of Turkoman king father and Greek princess mother, spoke only Greek as her main language. Such claim does not have any scholarly or even logistical basis. Moreover, Ismail did not write a single word in Greek, how can you claim his mother tongue being Greek from half-Turkic woman?
Your edit saying they were of "Iranian" origin is unacceptable, simply for the fact that majority of Qizilbash were not "Iranian" but "Anatolian" origin. Safavids originated from Ardabil and mixed with Turkomans and Greeks, who are obviously NOT Iranian. So yes, he did create Iranian empire and reasserted Iranian identity, with that I fully agree. But he was not of full Iranian origin, this is plain false. Atabek 00:30, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Frye indeed says that Safavids were "Azeri Turks". But he also makes clear in the very same sentence that "Azeri Turks" are not Turks by ethnicity, but Turkic-speakers of ethnic Iranian origin.
You also confuse the Safavid dynasty with their Qizilbash subjects. The vast majority of the Qizilbash were ethnic Turks, but this does not automatically turn the Safavid family into Turks.
Besides that, I did not claim that "Ismail was of fully Iranian origin". If you check the history, my recent proposal made it totally clear that Ismail was of "Turkic, Iranic, and Pontic Greek origin". I even mentioned the "obscure, but possible Kurdish origin" of Safi al-Din, and the Aq-Qoyunlu origin of his mother.
I asked you not to revert the new suggestion for at least 1 day, but you promply reverted it, refusing my proposal and - kind of - insulting me on purpose. That way, I do not see any way to reach a compromise, since you do not seem to be able to accept any other version except for your own POV. Tājik 00:38, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Azeris are not of "ethnic Iranian origin" as the very definition of "ethnic origin" is tied to genetical and linguistic makeup. If you acknowledge the fact that Turkic tribes infiltrated the region and mixed heavily with locals in Azerbaijan, inhabitants today cannot be of "Iranian origin", period. They're mixed. And Azeris cannot be claimed simply as "ethnic Iranians" also because there's no such ethnic defitinion, there are ethnic definitions of Kurdish, Persians, Tats, Talysh, etc. based on linguistic particulars.
Also, asking without a response is not sufficient Tajik. The consensus means, we agree here, then update, exactly as was done earlier with Ali Doostzadeh and Sa.vakilian, both of which made balanced and reasonable edits.Atabek 01:11, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
You are by far the biggest
hypocrite
on the talk page, Atabek. When Richard Frye (who is not even an expert on Safavid history) says that "Azeri Turks founded the Safavid dynasty", you blindly jump on it and defend it as gospel. But when he explains in the very same paragraph (in fact, only one sentense before) that "Azeri Turks" are native Iranians who adopted a Turkic language, you suddenly reject it and come up with your own talk. Why this hypocracy?! Either accept the entire source or reject all of it! Period!
Besides that, you do not owe Wikipedia. You were the one who started this edit-war, and you changed the article without analyzing the previous discussions and without starting a new discussion: [6][7].
You proved your hypocracy even with the source you added to the text. You simply cut it two and left out the part you did not like: "Azeri Turks are Shiites and were founders of the Safavid dynasty." Purposely leaving out the beginning of the paragraph, which says: "The Turkish speakers of Azerbaijan (q.v.) are mainly descended from the earlier Iranian speakers, several pockets of whom still exist in the region." In your hypocracy and aims to present the Safavids as "ethnic Turks", you even go as far as to claim that "Afghans were not native to Iran, because they were no legitimate rulers"?! What has the legitimacy to rule to do with one's ethnic background? The very same source you tried to abuse for your own purposes (the Iranic article "People of Iran" written by Richard Frye) considers the Afghans (as well as the population of Central Asia) as part of the "population of Iran". Tājik 14:25, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Tajik, first of all I would suggest you to refrain from personal attacks such as saying "you're the biggest hypocrite", you have been warned now. Secondly, I am totally in support of Azeri Turkic quote of Frye being fully mentioned now, since you keep editing the page and removing the words Turkic from everywhere. Minorsky also says the language was Azerbaijani Turkish. So just try to take it with some patience. You seem to be the only one, who is unable to come into terms of agreement and consensus, so I will have to request independent arbitration of this page, as this is definitely going to be endless. If three serioius Iranists say language was Azeri Turkic or Turkic, there is no basis or ground for you to remove them. Atabek 15:42, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
"Hypocrite" is not a personal attack, that's why I "wikified" the word. The term is the best description for what you are doing in here. I asked you twice not to start an edit war and to leave the text at least for 24h so that others can read and analyze my suggestions. For some reason, you somehow believe to own this article and revert my changes within 2-5 minutes! This is not really a constructive way and will not lead to any improvements. That's why I have posted my suggestion in here (something you have never done and would never do so). As for Frye: he clearly says the Turkish speakers of Azerbaijan are descendants of the Iranian population of the region. Minorsky (who wrote the main article "Azerbaijanis" in the Encyclopaedia of Islam) says the same. He even goes further and explains his statement:
  • "... [as consequence of Oghuz Turkic domination in the Caucasus, beginning the twelfth century] the Iranian population of Ādharbāyjān and the adjacent parts of Transcaucasia became Turkophone while the characteristic features of Ādharbāyjānī Turkish, such as Persian intonations and disregard of the vocalic harmony, reflect the non-Turkish origin of the Turkicised population. ..."
So please stop pretending, and please stop preventing other users from contributing to the article! There are serious scholars who say that the population of Azerbaijan is non-Turkish in origin, and that the Safavids were a native Iranian dynasty. Why do you reject their works while you ask others to blindly accept your POV?! One thing is for sure: you are totally incapable of properly discussing certain issues and to work for a consensus. Tājik 16:13, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Ardabil, Iran

Azerbaijani, stop editing the page without agreement. You're truely trying to waste an effort of everyone on this talk page without any respect or consideration to time people on both sides contribute to discussion. Your definition of Ardabil outside historical Iranian Azerbaijan has no historical ground neither in Iranian nor in Azerbaijani historiography. It's simple to mention the fact that Safavid of Ardabil, first proclaimed himself a Shah of Azerbaijan. Atabek 01:18, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I never said Ardabil was outside of Iranian Azerbaijan. Atabek, your really dont read other people's psots before you comment, I can tell...Re-read what I said.Azerbaijani 19:52, 21 February 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Suggestion


User:Tajik's version

[Intro]

The Safavids were a dynasty that ruled

Islamic conquest of Persia. Predominantly Azeri Turkic in language and Iranian in identity, the Safavids established Shia Islam as the official religion of their kingdom, reasserted the original Persian identity of the region, and became the first native dynasty to established an independent and united Iranian state after eight and a half centuries of rule by Arab, Turkic, and Mongol dynasties.[2][3]

[Background]

[Origins]